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| | #1 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Nov 2006 Location: Seattle, Washington, USA
Posts: 3,977
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I've been hearing a lot of noise about this concept called Public Banking for a month or two now and I'm a bit curious about it. I've been googling around for something negative about the whole deal and the best I've been able to find has been, "It's a great idea, but it isn't guaranteed to fix everything. That said, I'm all for it." There's gotta be a larger downside. Does anyone here have any pointers to where I might be able to find criticisms? |
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| | #2 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Nov 2006 Location: Berlin, Germany
Posts: 8,749
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It would help if you would point to a concrete idea. Quote:
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| | #3 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Nov 2006 Location: Seattle, Washington, USA
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| | #4 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 1,519
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The obvious downside based on that website is that it pulls yet more economic activity into the public sphere. Next up: government owned gas stations, laundromats, restaurants and bowling alleys? The other likely downside is that a de-facto or stated government policy of guaranteeing the public bank's debts acts in effect as a subsidy of the bank. Which might or might not be an issue depending on the capital structure of the bank. |
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| | #6 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Sep 2008
Posts: 2,950
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I think public banks are a decent idea as long as private banks are still allowed to compete in every area as the public bank, and the public bank must follow the same laws and regulations as private banks. This would add to competition in the marketplace and hopefully give more and better banking options to citizens. I read somewhere awhile ago that in the US, almost every bank that is started is profitable, and less than 1 out of 1000 fail. If this holds true for a public bank, it could raise money for the state government, while giving more options to the citizens. Of course, if the bank fails, it will be the taxpayers who bail it out. Last edited by Curtis2011; 07-05-2011 at 09:53 PM. |
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| | #9 (permalink) |
| Banned Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 9,613
| Here's the downside. Private banks are out to make money. As far as loans are concerned, this means that they lend money to businesses which they think are most likely to succeed (so that the businesses can succeed in repaying them with interest). The private bank is not driven by philanthropic intentions, therefore it will not direct money where it's most needed, but to where it is most likely to make more money. The public bank sounds like it's motivated by different considerations (including job creation). Its mission is to help small & medium sized enterprises, with loans. Therefore it will pump money even into businesses which are less likely to succeed. It will hesitate to pull the plug on borrowers in distress. Therefore in the long run, the public bank may lose more money on bad loans, than private banks. |
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| | #11 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 1,519
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The difficulty with a depositor-owned bank (or bank-like entity) is that it must maintain sufficient equity so that losses are taken by the equity stake, not by the depositors. That's what Tier 1 capital ratios are about. Therefore to have that sort of bank structure, people would have to not only make deposits but buy equity shares in the bank when they signed up (and in the correct ratio). That would confuse a lot of people, and they would not like potentially taking losses if the bank did. Possible? Probably. Feasible - not in my opinion. | |
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| | #12 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Aug 2008
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| | #13 (permalink) |
| Banned Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 9,613
| Private banks don't have to produce toxic assets either. It's just that a certain number of prominent US and European banks have been doing that. There are plenty of private banks in the world which never put a CDO together, for instance. Last edited by Acting Like Godot; 07-12-2011 at 03:22 AM. |
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| | #14 (permalink) | |
| Banned Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 9,613
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If a depositor-owned bank needs to maintain a certain Tier 1 capital ratio, it will simply have to do what the private banks have to do. It has to take some part of its money (whether the money came from deposits or equity or fee income or whatever) and invest it in Tier 1 assets (eg high-grade government bonds) and hold those assets. That's all. | |
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| | #15 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
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In practice without equity a bank could not meet Tier 1 requirements. | |
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| | #16 (permalink) | ||
| Banned Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 9,613
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Bank gets cash from different sources (eg shareholders; bondholders; depositors; fee income etc). Regardless of the source, it's all cash. Let's say (for simplicity), it's all USD cash, held in a nostro account. Next, Bank lends some money out. Three months, let's say many major borrowers go bust, bank is in trouble. Meanwhile, in the subsequent quarter: (1) bondholders expect their coupons (2) shareholders hope for their dividends (3) some depositors want to withdraw their deposit So long as the bank remains solvent, I don't understand what is the meaning of this sentence: Quote:
(1) if a bond coupon payment falls due, and the bank has money, the bank will pay (2) if a depositor arrives at the branch and wants to withdraw, and the bank has money, the bank will pay. (3) if dividends have been declared, and are due on a certain date, and the bank has money, the bank will pay. In a sense - it's a "first come, first served" basis. As long as the bank is solvent, it will pay whoever is due to be paid (and none of its creditors will "take a loss" in any particular order. And the bank will pay using cash (which could have come from equity, bondholders, fee income, depositors - it's all indistinguishable now, mixed up in the nostro account). If a depositor wants to withdraw on Monday, and the bondholder is to be paid on Tuesday, then the depositor gets the money first and the bondholder gets the money next. The "vice versa" scenario is true too. When does the "first come, first served" basis come to an end? When the bank actually runs short of money. Then somebody (who didn't get paid) puts in a bankruptcy petition (or the bank itself declares bankruptcy). Only NOW - does the waterfall kick in. Whoever is still owed something by the bank will join a queue to be paid off, and who stands where in the queue is prescribed by the law. While the order will vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, certain folks - such as the taxman and the employees who are owed in arrears - tend to rank high. Also ranking high (typically) are the depositors. Next it's bondholders, and equityholders come in around the bottom. Is this what you mean? Last edited by Acting Like Godot; 07-13-2011 at 01:53 AM. | ||
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| | #17 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 1,519
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What you're missing is that banks don't go bankrupt like individuals or incorporation do. They are held to a higher standard by banking regulators, and the Tier 1 ratio is the means of enforcing that standard. A standard corp is allowed to continue operating in cases where total liabilities exceed assets as long as there is cash on hand to pay liabilities as they come up. Banks are not allowed to do this. They have to maintain a buffer where their assets exceed their senior liabilities by a certain amount. If that buffer becomes too small, the bank is seized by the regulators even though assets still exceed liabilities. This is why, when the FDIC seizes a bank, they then sell it to another bank for a positive price. In order to achieve this state, the bank must have equity. If all assets were purchased as a result of deposits, each asset would be paired with a liability and there would be no buffer. The rest of the details of the Tier 1 calculation deal with how to value assets of dubious quality. |
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| | #18 (permalink) |
| Banned Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 9,613
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I understand that banks must have equity. All companies must have equity, actually. At least $2, to set up a shell. What I still don't understand is your statement that losses must go to equity/junior loans first, and deposits remain untouched. Outside of a full-blown bankruptcy proceeding, I don't understand how that is supposed to happen. See - a bank fails to meet the ratio. So it gets seized by the regulators. Next, what happens? How does a loss go first to the equity/junior loans, and how does the deposit remain untouched? What does this actually mean, in practical terms? |
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| | #19 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 1,519
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Once the regulators seize the bank, they sell it to another, better capitalized bank. The price received is payed to the shareholders just like a normal sale. But since the bank took a loss, that price will be less than what the original equity stake was, and as a result the loss will be passed on to the shareholders. | |
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| | #20 (permalink) |
| Family Member Join Date: Mar 2010 Location: Fort Lauderdale, Florida
Posts: 3,302
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Anyone that wants the government in charge of your banks, must have forgotten what got us into the banking situation in the first place. The government wanting everyone to get a home, and telling banks to give everyone a loan. THAT was the GOVERNMENT at work. Handouts for all, seems to always be the motto. So I say, stay the hell away from my banking. The government was not founded to run every single aspect of our lives. It has put itself in so many aspects of our lives, and ruined each one of them. There are things it's good at, and should stick to. And the rest, get the hell out, and let the free market deal with it. The free market would not have allowed the crash to happen. Only when the government stepped in, did anything bad happen. But lets all blame the big bad banks. Banks are a business, that caters to other business. There are things that need to be changed, but putting the government in charge, is like letting the patients run the insane asylum. |
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| | #22 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
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| | #23 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Mar 2010 Location: Fort Lauderdale, Florida
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| | #24 (permalink) | |
| Family Member Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 1,519
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So on the one hand, a huge crisis was averted. On the other hand, a time bomb was armed that blew up 22 years later. I don't think it's sensible to blame the government for the blowup without at least considering why the policy was implemented and what benefits it had. Rather than talking about it as a government vs. non-government issue, I think it makes more sense to ask basic questions about the system. For example: If thrifts can't tolerate the interest rate risk of fixed rate loans, and homeowners can't tolerate the risk of variable rate loans, do large numbers of outstanding mortgages even make sense? | |
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