Personal Development for Smart People Forums - View Single Post - Adult and Explicit - Is it possible for a women to physically rape a man (naturally)

Orecle · 05-08-2009, 08:36 AM

Poiesis Hagakure - Thanks for the link, it did help tons

Alot of people have brought up the fact that men get boners during sleep whenwe are semi-conscious, which I accept. However this thread is not about erection during sleep, this is about an erection while being FULLY CONSCIOUS, AWAKE AND UNDER INTENSE FEAR AND STRESS. When asleep you are relaxed, so the same does not not apply here.

People are also bringing up female orgasm during rape, again the thread is not about whether orgasm can occur during rape for eiether sexes. Again the woman being raped, did not initiate the sex, and did not have to be aroused before, during or after sex, the same with a man who is having anal intercourse

In this case, the man was ordered to become physically aroused because sex COULD NOT TAKE PLACE OTHERWISE, my question was if that was possible under extreme fear.

Anyway judging by the replies, it seems people are saying A MAN CAN BE PHYSICALLY AROUSED WITHOUT CONSCIOUS VOLITION, WHILE UNDER EXTREME FEAR, then the responses are saying the fear induced the erection, Yossarian is suggesting that it is a Pavlovs dog response. Both these arguments I have no argument for

I see peoples concern

Fact - After being beaten, the man was instructed to produce an erection in 5, which he did.

A problem alot of people might have is whether he chose to have the erection (which had to take place 1st, before the rape, unlike with women), AS IF IT IMPLIES THAT HE WAS NOT RAPED IF HE DID.
Well it does not imply it, he was still forced to do something he did not want to do. .

BUT

fact - he was verbally instructed, to do something he had to CONSCIOUSLY PROCESS (unlike morning boners) after the instruction, which was ON HIS MIND, did he have to mentally choose to arouse himself, because he feared the future consequences, or did the fear bypass his mental faculties and create the erection as a response

I think for many the word arousal implies that the victim enjoyed it, which is not true. in the case, of the man it seems that society would show less sympathy if he chose arousal before sex (whether not he did it out of fear for his life

05-08-2009, 08:36 AM	#20 (permalink)
Orecle Senior Member Join Date: Mar 2008 Posts: 573	Poiesis Hagakure - Thanks for the link, it did help tons Alot of people have brought up the fact that men get boners during sleep whenwe are semi-conscious, which I accept. However this thread is not about erection during sleep, this is about an erection while being FULLY CONSCIOUS, AWAKE AND UNDER INTENSE FEAR AND STRESS. When asleep you are relaxed, so the same does not not apply here. People are also bringing up female orgasm during rape, again the thread is not about whether orgasm can occur during rape for eiether sexes. Again the woman being raped, did not initiate the sex, and did not have to be aroused before, during or after sex, the same with a man who is having anal intercourse In this case, the man was ordered to become physically aroused because sex COULD NOT TAKE PLACE OTHERWISE, my question was if that was possible under extreme fear. Anyway judging by the replies, it seems people are saying A MAN CAN BE PHYSICALLY AROUSED WITHOUT CONSCIOUS VOLITION, WHILE UNDER EXTREME FEAR, then the responses are saying the fear induced the erection, Yossarian is suggesting that it is a Pavlovs dog response. Both these arguments I have no argument for I see peoples concern Fact - After being beaten, the man was instructed to produce an erection in 5, which he did. A problem alot of people might have is whether he chose to have the erection (which had to take place 1st, before the rape, unlike with women), AS IF IT IMPLIES THAT HE WAS NOT RAPED IF HE DID. Well it does not imply it, he was still forced to do something he did not want to do. . BUT fact - he was verbally instructed, to do something he had to CONSCIOUSLY PROCESS (unlike morning boners) after the instruction, which was ON HIS MIND, did he have to mentally choose to arouse himself, because he feared the future consequences, or did the fear bypass his mental faculties and create the erection as a response I think for many the word arousal implies that the victim enjoyed it, which is not true. in the case, of the man it seems that society would show less sympathy if he chose arousal before sex (whether not he did it out of fear for his life