Personal Development for Smart People Forums - View Single Post - Adult and Explicit - Is it possible for a women to physically rape a man (naturally)

Orecle · 05-08-2009, 04:12 AM

Some random guy.

I agree with you about disfunction brought on by physical ailments, however what you are ignoring is that men and women are not the same. A woman does not have to be physically or mentally aroused for sex to take place ( hence the use of lubricants ie KY jelly, and the fact that a good percentage feel nothing during intercourse) and the same applies to a man being penetrated during homosexual intercourse. The penetrating man cannot get(and keep) an erection to have sex without his mind and his body present (except in puberty). Rape for a man and a woman are not the same unless the man is buggered. The woman is being penetrated without her consent and then can become aroused during the rape, the same as men who are anally penetrated.

When a man is doing the penetrating, pls explain how he can become physically aroused, without his mind being present. What you are advocating makes no sense. He was verbally instructed to become aroused, how did his body process the instruction without his mind being present. So the erection was an involuntary spasm that just happens to arrive 5 mins after instruction?

05-08-2009, 04:12 AM	#17 (permalink)
Orecle Senior Member Join Date: Mar 2008 Posts: 573	Some random guy. I agree with you about disfunction brought on by physical ailments, however what you are ignoring is that men and women are not the same. A woman does not have to be physically or mentally aroused for sex to take place ( hence the use of lubricants ie KY jelly, and the fact that a good percentage feel nothing during intercourse) and the same applies to a man being penetrated during homosexual intercourse. The penetrating man cannot get(and keep) an erection to have sex without his mind and his body present (except in puberty). Rape for a man and a woman are not the same unless the man is buggered. The woman is being penetrated without her consent and then can become aroused during the rape, the same as men who are anally penetrated. When a man is doing the penetrating, pls explain how he can become physically aroused, without his mind being present. What you are advocating makes no sense. He was verbally instructed to become aroused, how did his body process the instruction without his mind being present. So the erection was an involuntary spasm that just happens to arrive 5 mins after instruction? Last edited by Orecle; 05-08-2009 at 04:16 AM.