[mercuryrising]

I would like to ask a related question to abortion that never seems to get addressed. It is largely based on my own experience, but I think there are many men who would agree with me.

The argument for abortion is that a woman has rights over her own body and that another person (i.e. men) have no say whether a woman goes to term with a baby or not.

Ok. If that is true, why does that same woman have rights over a man's income if she chooses to take that baby to term? If a man has no say in her bearing a child, why is he potentially obligated for 18 years to pay her to raise that child? Or do anything else with that child?

If the counter-argument is that a man makes his choice at the time he chooses to have sex with a woman, then the same restriction on a woman should apply. She makes her choice when she decides to have sex with a man. I don't think that scenario would be beneficial to either the woman or the man.

What I see is that we are playing both sides of the issue when it comes to reproductive rights, and the ball always lands on the woman's side of the court. Feminists want to get rid of the traditional family because it is repressive to women. But on the other hand, they want men to take responsibility for a child that is fitting to their traditional role in a family.

If it is voluntary for a woman to decide whether she wants to have a baby, I think it should be voluntary for a man to support her decision to have that baby.

What are the errors in this argument, if any?

Thanks