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Old 12-24-2008, 02:28 AM   #19 (permalink)
Plato
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RT Wolf View Post
That sounds like its based on the assumption that all forms of affecting others are ethically the same. Is that correct?
Yes, and no. Here's what is correct:

Premise1) moral premises are incommensurable (also see Hume's "Ought from Is" fallacy)

P2) reason is redundant in resolving ethical debate, or any decision making.

P3) all decisions are based on non-rational factors.
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Last edited by Plato; 12-24-2008 at 02:32 AM.
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